Welcome to Our Website

10 strike network diagram keygen

Serial key download 10-Strike Network Diagram 3.61

Expert Lotto [HOST] keygen crack ultraiso cubase 6 activation [HOST] () Istilab Karaoke Player Crack 10 Strike Network Diagram 2 3. Current DOD plans call for acquiring a total of 2, 456 F-35s. FAQ - Collective Minds Gaming Co. Ltd. Network Diagram - 10-Strike Network Diagram, Edraw Network.

Hack 10-Strike Network Diagram 2.5 Download

How to discover the network topology and built network map using the specialised software. Strike Network Diagram is a powerful network mapping software for the quick creation of a visual local-area network diagram and exporting it to Microsoft Visio, vector or raster images. Network Monitor Pro\web\docs\ folder. PowerPlugs: Template Finder for PowerPoint.

10-Strike LANState - Free Trial Download - Tucows Downloads

Key download 10-Strike LANState Pro 9.5

Creating a network diagram.

Download 10-Strike Network Diagram 3.61 for free

If this goes out of sync due to the character dying or the game session ending while using a Secondary weapon, simply PRESS RIGHT D-PAD and TAP Triangle. Network Diagram contains of the executables below. Cancer occurs when the cells in a certain area of your body divide and multiply too rapidly. Go (XSJ125-6B) Search Parts.

Download 10-Strike Network Diagram - a Powerful Network

Network diagram software to quickly draw network diagrams online. Strike Network Diagram + crack serial keygen. 10 strike network diagram keygen. Jun 11, 2020 - Microsoft has released windows 10 free download build 10130 with direct offline bootable ISO image files for 32-bit/64-bit.

Network Diagram Software

011375 931208F Network Dual Door Strike Operations Guide. To browse the maps by Network Rail route, click one of the tabs below. The program contains a feature-rich diagram editor and an object library with a wide range of device icons. Categories: network, map, diagram, mapping, lan, monitor, monitoring, host, tcp, scanner, mac, remote, computer, lanstate, 10-strike, shutdown, administrator, dns, reboot, device, restart.

  • Draw Context Diagram - Free Software Downloads and Reviews
  • Uml - What does derived union implies in this diagram
  • Strike View 8 - Lightning detection
  • Piecing together the Alaska coastline's fractured volcanic
  • User Manuals for 10-Strike LANState (Pro), Network Monitor
  • Network Diagram Software, FREE Network Drawing, Computer
  • Download LANState, Download LANState Pro
  • StrikePack - Collective Minds Gaming Co. Ltd

10-Strike Network Diagram

The diagram scaling, moving objects, and other operations perform much faster now (faster. Crack serial number keygen key generator warez tools for windows utilities utility system net wintools net clean uninstaller uninstall scan files scan registry startup tweak tweaker up tweakui Vista download - NetGong Vista download - Best Free Vista Downloads - Free Vista software download - freeware, shareware and trialware downloads. Data Recovery Software Crack Version Of Autocad 43b42fc606 world of warcraft mists of pandaria full version freedownload mysql front full crack interneteyebeam free download with keygencrack head kid maad city epromnorton antivirus 2020 free download full versionwarez life game of throneswar at home leftover crack girlscrack family lista de reproduccionforex tester pro 2 keygenbanner design. The door strike relay (DSR) is meant to be used as a replacement for (or an addition to) the on-board relay.

Activity code network Topology Discovery and Diagram ...

Caesar 2 Software Crack Download. The license type of the downloaded software is shareware. Strike Network Diagram Vista download - Create network diagrams, scan & draw LAN maps - Best Free Vista Downloads - Free Vista software download - freeware, shareware and trialware downloads. All the sub-Rayleigh ruptures in full-space become supershear ruptures due to the influence of the free surface.

Download network-diagram.exe free - 10-Strike Network Diagram

Download 10-Strike Network Diagram 2.2 Free you can check here. Generates a network inventory without installing software on the users' PCs. Thousands of cracks, keygens and patches are presented in our storage. The product line includes network monitoring software, computer inventory software, network mapping and management software, LAN topology discovery and diagramming program, file searching program, bandwidth monitoring and Internet traffic usage tool, and share remote user access auditing program.

I Passed the PMP (online proctored) on a 6-week study plan - T/AT/T/AT/AT

(Links removed to conform to rules regarding promotional material)
I've been a PM for 10 years, mostly in the IT industry, managing network deployments, data center upgrades etc. For the past 18 months I've been a PM for ERP software implementations. I started some light exam prep about 6 months ago, but didn't create a true study plan until ~7 weeks from my exam date.
  • I took the exam on 7/30 online, using PearsonVue's remote proctored software.
  • You should perform their System Check a week or more before your exam to ensure that the software works as intended.
  • Ensure that you have a valid (non-expired) ID before checking in for the exam.
  • Prior to the exam start you will have to take photos of your exam space (facing the computer, behind your seat, and to either side). This is to verify that you don't have reference material visible and that you are alone in the room.
  • Your exam proctor will communicate with you via a chat window. They will be listening to your computer mic, and watching you via your webcam for the entire exam. On a few occasions they sent me a message not to cover my mouth with my had while testing.
Exam Results:
  • Initiating - Target
  • Planning - Above Target
  • Executing - Target
  • Monitoring & Controlling - Above Target
  • Closing - Above Target
Note - At the end of the exam, when you submit/end the test, you will see a brief loading/spinning icon before being presented with a generic "Congratulations! You're earned your PMP..." so you will know within moments whether you passed or failed. The detailed performance report will then be emailed and made available on your PMI Dashboard ~3 days after the exam.
Prep
  • 35 Contact Hours
    • LinkedIn Learning - Sandra Mitchell - Cert Prep: Project Management Professional (PMP)
      • Completed this course 3 months prior to Exam date
  • Books/Resources
    • Rita Mulachy's PMP Exam Prep, 9th Edition
  • Courses
  • Udemy - Joseph Phillips - PMP Exam Cram Session- PMBOK Guide, 6th Edition
    • Reviewed this over the course of a week,two weeks prior to exam date, leaving one week until exam
  • Exam Simulators
    • PM Prepcast (Exam Simulator-only for $140)
      • Performed one full exam one month prior to exam date for a baseline/gaps assessment
      • Performed several "Learning Quizzes" in the weeks leading up to exam. These are a great way to get test practice and build knowledge
      • I was scoring between 65% and 85% in my week leading up to the Exam, which wasn't very encouraging, but it turns out that this simulator is generally more difficult than the actual exam (which is great in hindsight, but stressful during my prep!)
    • PMP Exam Mentor - Android App
      • Performed practice tests and exams while on-the go in the 2 weeks leading up to exam to maintain exposure to content and keep it fresh
Testing strategy
  • 1) For questions you are uncertain on, select the best answer, then mark questions for review and move on rather than spending too much time
    • a. Better to have an answer to every question than run out of time
    • b. It's also possible that an upcoming question will provide clarity on a prior question
    • c. You get time after the first 90 questions to review marked questions (this does keep the clock running)
  • 2) After the first 90 questions you get the option to take a 10-minute break, or keep going (the 10 minute break doesn't count against test time, the clock pauses)
    • a. IF YOU NEED TO LEAVE THE ROOM, notify your proctor via the chat feature!
      • i. I left the room to use the restroom, and my proctor CALLED MY PHONE and asked where I went, and told me to get back into the room!
  • 3) Notes on the PersonVue exam software
    • a. The little overlay that shows your webcam view and has buttons for "chat" and "white board" sometimes gets stuck, and you cannot move it (this happened to me and it was obstructing the text of a question)
      • i. Was able to resolve it by selecting an answer, or clicking to the next question, then returning to the prior question. I could then drag the overlay window around
    • b. The "Highlight" and "Strikethrough" features didn't work for me, so I couldn't highlight or strike questions
    • c. The "Comment" option worked, but the keyboard input was delays by about .5 seconds, making it slow and hard to type effectively
    • d. The whiteboard tool is very clunky. It's like MS Paint and hard to draw with. i. I did use this to draw a critical path diagram to calculate the duration of a critical path
    • e. The calculator tool works OK, and I only used it 2 or 3 times
Exam Content
  • 1. High-level take-aways
    • a. Don't spend much (ANY?) time on memorizing Process ITTOs (inputs, tools, techniques & outputs)
    • b. Don't spend much time on memorizing every formula
    • c. Key areas are
      • i. Risk Mgmt/Planning
      • ii. Stakeholders Engagement
      • iii. Communications Plan
      • iv. Resource Mgmt (VendoProcurement/Contractor Mgmt)
      • v. Integrated Change Control
  • 2. Most prevalent topics
    • a. Integrated Change Control
      • i. Whenever a scope change occurs in a scenario, think "Change Control Board (CCB)" or getting "approval", issuing a "change request" or updating the "change log"
    • b. Risk Management / Plan Risk Management
      • i. Many questions around updating the risk register
    • c. Stakeholder engagement
      • i. Many questions on handling disengaged stakeholders
      • ii. Several questions on how to modify the communications plan to better engage stakeholders
    • d. Communications Management Plan
  • 3. Secondary topics
    • a. Cost Performance Index (CPI) and Schedule Performance Index (SPI) - "Bigger is better"
      • i. Know that SPI <1 is behind schedule, >1 is ahead of schedule
        • 1) i.e. SPI of .86 is behind schedule, 1 is ON schedule, 1.2 is ahead of schedule
          • ii. Know that CPI 1 is under budget
          • i.e. CPI of .86 is over budget, 1 is ON budget, 1.2 is under budget
    • b. 1 question Critical path
      • i. Know how to draw network diagram and identify critical path and duration
        • c. 1 question on calculating EAC
        • d. 1 question on calculating variance
          • i. Example - project budget is 200,000, 35% of work is complete, 120,000 spent so far
        • e. Schedule compression methods (Crash vs Fast Track especially)
        • f. Functional Manager authority
        • g. Project Manager Authority (defined in Project Charter)
        • h. PM communication methods
submitted by ARCHA1C to projectmanagement

rcdd study questions

Chapter 1
  1. The maximum cable attenuation coefficient for 62.5/125 um multimode optical fiber cable at a wavelength of 1300 nm is:
  2. “Measures the maximum voltage that an insulation can withstand without breakdown” is the definition of:
  3. In a singlemode optical fiber system, the maximum splice loss when using a fusion splice is ____ dB
  4. Which one of the following types of insulation has the smallest dielectric constant? FEP/ECTFE/PE/XL polyolefin
  5. In optical fiber transmission, _____ occurs when the wider range of wavelengths in each pulse travels at a wider range of individual speeds.
  6. When compared to copper, aluminum conductors have an approximate conductivity rating of:
  7. For balanced twisted-pair transmission, bandwidth can be expressed as the frequency range where PCACR <>= 0
  8. Cable shield effectiveness ratings are given as poor, fair, good, and excellent. A rating of 57 dB indicates a cable shield effectiveness that is considered to be ____
  9. If the power in a signal is reduced by one-half, the power change is ____ dB.
  10. The electrical performance of balanced twisted-pair cables is ____ related to the insulation’s dielectric constant and dissipation factor.
  11. Which one of the following optical fiber transmitters is primarily used with singlemode optical fiber? VCSEL, LED, short wavelength laser, LD
  12. For practical cables the velocity of propagation of a balanced twisted-pair cable depends primarily on the ____
  13. Telephone cables have a characteristic impedance that depends on frequency. In voice-band applications, an impedance of ____ is preferred for trunks.
  14. The signal-to-noise ration (SNR), attenuation-to-crosstalk ratio (ACR) and power sum attenuation-to-crosstalk ratio (PSCAR) are all measured using _____
  15. For balanced twisted-pair cables, NEXT loss is dominated by components in the near zone, which is considered to be less than ___ m(ft)
  16. ___ transmission is used with digital baseband transmission systems
  17. A balanced twisted-pair cabling channel may not include a consolidation point (CP). T/F
  18. The theory and methodology used to verify appropriate optical fiber performance are the same for both singlemode and multimode optical fibers at any wavelength (t/f)
  19. Another term used to describe insulation is ___
  20. In balanced twisted-pair transmission, the better the impedance matching, the lower the reflected energy and the lower the return loss (t/f)
  21. An E3 circuit multiplexes ___ E2 channels
  22. OM2 optical fiber has a minimum bandwidth of ___ MHz-km at 1300 nm
  23. The delay skew between the fastest and slowest pairs in category 6/Class E balanced twisted-pair cabling shall not exceed ____ nanoseconds at ~100 m (328 ft)
  24. A transmission line can be represented by an electrical circuit containing only passive components that are arranged in ____
  25. As defined in the cabling standards, a channel includes all cables and cords, but not connectors, from an equipment connection at one end to the equipment connection at the other end. (t/f)
  26. Multi-pair balanced twisted pair backbone cable may be called upon to carry both analog and digital signals from more than one type of LAN, PBX, key system, and alarm system.
  27. Checking minimum system loss is one of the attenuation checks for optical fiber system design. (t/f)
  28. “The ratio of the capacitance of an insulated conductor to the capacitance of the same conductor uninsulated in air” is the definition of ___
Chapter 2
  1. An ITS distribution designer is directly responsible for the EMC of ITS (t/f)
  2. An electromagnetic field is an area of energy that surrounds electrical devices and is a combination of an electric field and a magnetic field. The electric field is created by ___
  3. CM and DM are the two types of unwanted signals on cable in an EMI event. Which one usually predominates?
  4. Transient disturbances are often referred to as electrical ____
  5. Unwanted electromagnetic signals are always transferred by inductive or capacitive coupling (t/f)
  6. Equipment’s ability to withstand electromagnetic disturbances is referred to as ___
  7. Measuring the electrical and magnetic field strength of the outgoing radiation determine radiated emissions. One unit of measure for the electrical field strength is ____
  8. To successfully filter both common mode (CM) and differential mode (DM) unwanted signals, the preferred method is ____
  9. The potential for EMI ___ when devices or systems share a common electromagnetic environment and their operation’s frequencies overlap
Chapter 3
  1. When planning space for wall terminations, note that corners result in ____ of lost space on each wall
  2. A telecommunications enclosure can be used as a replacement for a telecommunications room (t/f)
  3. Doors for telecommunications spaces are ____ to have removable posts.
  4. In a cross-connect facility, all connections between the horizontal cabling and backbone cabling subsystems shall be ____
  5. An entrance facility (EF) must be located separately from the equipment room (ER) (t/f)
  6. Trays and conduits located within the ceiling in telecommunications spaces should be ____ high.
  7. The design of an equipment room ____ include permanent work space for telecommunications personnel.
  8. Doors for telecommunications spaces must be installed to be removable. (t/f)
  9. When determining the minimum size of an equipment room (ER), the number of work areas to be served must be multiplied by ____
  10. The HVAC system that serves an equipment room should maintain a ____ air pressure differential with respect to surrounding areas.
  11. If the usable floor space is less than 93 m2 (1000 ft2), it may be served by a telecommunications space in the form of a wall cabinet. (t/f)
  12. As a general requirement, the minimum ceiling height in a telecommunications space should be ___ above finished floor (AFF)
  13. When designing the layout of a telecommunications room, if an entrance facility is housed at the same location, then the designer should ___
  14. What type of cabling facility is typically housed in a telecommunications enclosure?
  15. A minimum of __ duplex electrical power receptacle(s) should be available in each telecommunications enclosure for equipment powering.
  16. The use of colored cables is an accepted method of color coding cross-connect fields.
  17. Conduits are recommended for telecommunications cable distribution within equipment rooms. (t/f)
  18. The maximum recommended length of a 26 AWG balanced twisted-pair cord used within a horizontal cabling channel, but not within the permanent link, is ___
Chapter 4
  1. A telecommunications enclosure is considered to be a(n) ____ -serving space
  2. Building backbones using OM3 fiber have a maximum recommended length of ____ for data rates up to 100 GB/s.
  3. A backbone distribution system provides connection between telecommunications ____
  4. ____ balanced twisted-pair has performance characteristics specified up to 600 Mhz
  5. ____ balanced twisted-pair has performance characteristics specified up to 250 Mhz
  6. Threads of steel conduit ends are covered by industry color-coded thread protectors. The color black is associated with ____
  7. Loading refers to the addition of load coils in unbundled voice grade analog loops in order to reduce the ____ in the 300-3400 Hz voice band range.
  8. Ethernet in the first mile (EFM) _____ physical layer signaling operates over one or more pairs of voice grade balanced twisted-pair cable.
  9. A design for a first level hierarchical star campus backbone would link all the ___
  10. Campus or building backbones using OS1 fiber have a maximum recommended length of ____
  11. The recommended balanced twisted-pair cable for building backbones consists of round, solid, copper conductors up to ____ AWG in diameter
  12. In a hierarchical star building backbone for a high-rise building, the same telecommunications room could house connecting hardware to serve the function of the ____
  13. Building backbones using OM2 fiber have a maximum recommended length of ____
  14. In Ethernet over digital subscriber line (EoDSL) networks, service is provided to subscribers in a ____ topology using balanced twisted pair cable.
  15. Campus or building backbones using OM4 fiber have a maximum recommended length of ____ for data rates up to 10 Gb/s
  16. How many sleeves should be provisioned for an in-building backbone distribution system serving a floor with 3716 m2 (40,000 ft2) of useable floor space?
Chapter 5
  1. When designing a standard-height access floor system for a general office area, it is recommended to provide at least ____ clearance above the structural floor.
  2. Utility columns for ceiling-based horizontal cabling pathways may be used for both telecommunications and power cabling (t/f)
  3. Any horizontal cabling channel with three connection points will require a CP connector.
  4. Which one of the following CP location layout designs has the highest flexibility relative to other configurations?
  5. MUTOAs are intended to service work area devices in furniture clusters and wireless access points (WAPs) (t/f)
  6. When designing a standard-height access floor system for a general office area, the finished floor shall provide at least ___ minimum clearance above the structural floor.
  7. A third conduit bend in a pull section may be acceptable without derating the conduits capacity if the conduit size is increased (t/f)
  8. Ramp or step assemblies _____ when designing an access floor system for a depressed slab environment.
  9. In general, splicing is not permitted within the horizontal cabling system. (t/f)
  10. Using cable mockups is an unreliable method of determining modular furniture pathway cable capacity. (t/f)
  11. The standards for gigabit and 10 Gb/s passive optical networks (GPON and 10GPON) are issued by ____
  12. Cable slack shall be taken into consideration when identifying the total length of a horizontal cabling system segment. (t/f)
  13. The recommended amount of cable slack in the telecommunications room for a balanced twisted-pair horizontal cabling system is ____
  14. A MUTOA used with balanced twisted-pair cabling should be located at least ___ from the HC (FD)
  15. The terms “telecommunications outlet/connector” and “telecommunications outlet box” both refer to the same item. (t/f)
  16. When compared to other available variations, a ___ passive optical network is considered to be a legacy technology
  17. Color codes are used to identify cross-connect fields. The color blue is used to identify ____
  18. In horizontal cabling, a maximum of ___ connectors are allowed in the channel model.
  19. A third conduit bend in a pull section may be acceptable without derating the conduit’s capacity if one of the bends is located within ___ of the cable feed end.
  20. When a centralized optical fiber topology is used, interconnection is ___ in the HC (FD) for passive connections between horizontal and backbone cabling systems
  21. Perimeter raceways for horizontal cabling may only be used in dry locations (t/f)
  22. In order to comply with the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), ____ of public telephones in newly constructed or altered facilities must be equipped with volume controls
  23. Which one of the following introduces an additional connection point within the horizontal cabling unit?
  24. When pulling a telecommunications bonding backbone through conduit, the minimum bend radius for the cable is ___ times the outside cable diameter
  25. Total cable weight per unit length is ___ the limiting factor in determining allowable cable tray fill
Chapter 6
  1. When compared with tight-buffered cables with the same number of strands, which one of the following statements about loose-tube optical fiber cable is false?
  2. TIA Category 6 balanced twisted-pair cabling channel performance is specified up to a frequency of _____
  3. When compared with loose-tube cables with the same number of strands, which one of the following statements about tight-buffered optical fiber cable is false?
  4. When using the T568A wiring scheme for 8-position modular jacks, the color of the pin/pair assignment for pair 3 is ____
  5. Optical fiber cabling applications are length restricted on the style of cabling. For 100 Mb transmission standards, what is the typical distance supported by OM4 cable?
  6. Optical fiber cabling applications are length restricted on the style of cabling. For 40 Gb transmission standards, what is the typical distance supported by OM4 cable?
  7. Optical fiber cabling applications are length restricted on the style of cabling. For 1 Gb transmission standards, what is the typical distance supported by OM1 cable?
  8. Balanced twisted-pair patch cords should be constructed with ____ cable.
  9. The minimum performance level for network cabling recommended by many standards is ___
  10. ISO Category 7/ Class 7 balanced twisted-pair cabling channel performance is specified up to a frequency of ____
  11. The bandwidth for OM2 multimode optical fiber cable at a wavelength of 850 nm is ____
  12. Which one of the following communications cable markings designates the cable type “communications cable, limited use”?
  13. The type of coaxial connectors recommended for commercial building installations are the screw-on and hex crimp type. (t/f)
  14. When using the T568A wiring scheme for 8-position modular jacks, the pins used for Pair 3 are ____
  15. Fusion optical fiber splices shall have a minimum return loss of ____ for multimode fiber.
  16. When using the T568B wiring scheme for 8-position modular jacks, the pins used for pair 1 are ____
  17. The coaxial connector most widely used for residential cable service is the ____
  18. Optical fiber cabling applications are length restricted on the style of cabling. For 1Gb transmission standards, what is the typical distance supported by OM4 cable?
Chapter 7
  1. ____ is an excellent choice for firestopping applications in small-to-medium sized openings where future entry is required.
  2. ____ are often used to firestop materials that may burn away in a fire and leave a significant void.
  3. The “T” rating for firestop systems is expressed in minutes or hours. (t/f)
  4. ____ non-mechanical firestop systems have a tendency to shrink over time, which may cause leakage and potential hazard.
  5. In fire protection, ____ is a vital part of any fully implemented compartmentation system.
  6. Cable transit systems, fire-rated pathway devices, and factory-fabricated sleeve systems are all common categories of ____ firestop systems.
  7. In firestopping, the term ____ refers to the arrangement of construction assembly, the penetrating item, and the proprietary firestop material or device.
  8. Foam backer rods used in firestopping are categorized as a ___ form of non-mechanical firestop.
  9. “E” and “I” ratings for firestop systems are associated with referenced test standards for ____
  10. For the purpose of firestopping, electrical boxes that do not exceed 10,000 mm2 (15.5 in2) in surface area but create membrane penetrations in a stud wall, should be separated on opposite faces of walls by ____
  11. Some firestop materials are available in a cementitious form. These materials are ___ adaptable to large openings than putty or caulk.
  12. In ___ firestop testing, the wall assembly is positioned in front of the test furnace
  13. In the United States, the ASTM E1966 or UL 2079 firestop standards are used to evaluate ____
  14. A(n) ____ fire protection system protects through its inherent properties
  15. The fire resistance of penetration firestops is evaluated under positive pressure, ____, and furnace conditions.
Chapter 8
  1. If a raised floor is used within an ER, TR, or data processing center; a telecommunications bonding conductor must be run between the room’s associated TGB and at least ____ points within the supplementary bonding grid (SBG).
  2. The recommended maximum value for the bonding resistance between an available grounding (earthing) electrode (e.g., structural steel column) and the busbar in the EF or TR is ____
  3. Visual inspection of telecommunications bonding connections can usually reveal problems such as loose connections, corrosion, physical damage, and system modifications. (t/f)
  4. Are telecommunications bonding conductors intended to carry AC ground fault current or lightning strike current?
  5. ITS distribution designers are not responsible for engineering the portions of the electrical system related to surge protection (t/f)
  6. One purpose of the ac grounding (earthing) electrode system is to provide a path for the dissipation of electrostatic discharge currents. (t/f)
  7. Which one of the following statements about an isolated ground (IG) is false?
  8. Generally, the connection intended to safely and effectively equalize the potential differences between two metallic items is the definition of ____
  9. A supplementary bonding grid (SBG) provides a ____-impedance path between many cabinets or racks of telecommunications equipment.
  10. The impedance of the telecommunications equipment grounding (earthing) conductor should be as low as possible. However, the NEC has not set a required impedance value (t/f)
Chapter 9
  1. Conductor sizes larger than ___ are specified using the total cross-sectional area of the copper measured in circular mils.
  2. In delta and wye phase configurations, voltages are ___ degrees out of phase
  3. Isolation transformers are typically used for general purpose loads in cases where the non-linear load is less than ____ percent of the total connected load.
  4. Power conductors originating in a panelboard that are serving downstream receptacles is an example of a(n) ___ circuit.
  5. A ____ rating on a transformer indicates that the unit can handle up to 50% non-linear load and 50% linear load.
  6. Power line noise that is present between neutral and ground is categorized as ___ noise.
  7. “A protective device for limiting surge voltages by discharging or bypassing surge current” is the definition found in the National Electrical Code (NEC) for a surge _____
  8. Feeder and branch circuit conductors should be sized for the non-continuous load plus ___ percent of the continuous load.
  9. The normal operating voltage for telecommunications in the United States is ____
  10. Which one of the following is an example of a minor alarm in a direct current (DC) power system?
  11. With regards to redundancy or reliability, a paralleled generator system topology can be implemented in any one of the class configurations (t/f)
  12. A decrease in the nominal voltage for more than 3600 cycles (1 minute) is the definition of ____
  13. Battery cell sizing uses amperes as the unit of measure for reserve times that are ____
  14. In a ring bus multi-module UPS system topology, multiple large UPS units are connected to output paralleling switch-gear tied together to form the ring bus. (t/f)
  15. The venting of battery cells is a normal occurrence during routine operations and maintenance. (t/f)
  16. In a typical direct current (DC) power system, the inclusion of a low-voltage disconnect (LVD) in the switchboard is ____
  17. When designing cable runs for a direct current (DC) power system, the bending radius must not be less than ___ times the overall diameter for unshielded power cables.
  18. The small footprint of power distribution units (PDUs) make it possible to place up to ___ panelboards in the same unit
  19. A(n) ___ changes the alternating current (AC) input to a direct current (DC)
  20. The transfer time associated with a static transfer switch (STS) is typically one ____
  21. Stranded conductors generally have ____ outside diameters than their corresponding solid conductors.
  22. When describing power system redundancy, a Class 1 electrical system topology typically ___
  23. In an AC circuit with ___ reactance, current lags voltage.
Chapter 10
  1. Which of the following is optional information for the administration record of the Spaces component in the Spaces and Pathways category?
  2. Color codes are used to identify cross-connect fields. The color gray is used to identify ___
  3. Color codes are used to identify cross-connect fields. The color purple is used to identify ___
  4. ANSI/TIA-606-B specifies the records required by class of administration. TMGB records are required for all classes of administration (t/f)
  5. A telecommunications bonding backbone is a required identifier for which class(es) of telecommunications administration?
  6. ANSI/TIA-606-B specifies the records required by class of administration. Building records are only required for class 4 administration (t/f)
  7. Which of the following is the only required administration system linkage/cross-reference for the Firestopping component in the Spaces and Pathways category?
  8. Identifiers for buildings and campus cabling require a minimum of a ___ system of administration.
  9. For the purposes of telecommunications administration, equipment shelves within a rack or cabinet are usually numbered starting at the top (t/f)
Chapter 11
  1. When testing balanced twisted-pair cabling, return loss is measured ____ and is used as an indication of the impedance uniformity of the cabling and impedance mismatch between the cabling and connector at the point of termination.
  2. In a balanced twisted-pair cable, a wiremap test should indicate which one of the following?
  3. When testing optical fiber cabling, the worst-case attenuation coefficient for 50/125 um and 62.5/125 um multimode optical fiber at a wavelength of 1300 nm is _____
  4. In a balanced twisted-pair cable, ____ of a wire pair is the conductor resistance with the far end of the wire pair shorted.
  5. When testing balanced twisted-pair cabling, ____ is used as a requirement for applications that communicate over multiple pairs at the same time
  6. When testing balanced twisted-pair cabling, the difference between the fastest and slowest pairs in the same cable sheath is called ____
  7. When testing balanced twisted-pair cabling, for return loss, the smaller the loss in decibels, the better the performance (t/f)
  8. In a balanced twisted pair cabling environment, noise caused by adjacent data communications cables in the same bundle is known as ____
  9. When testing balanced twisted-pair cabling, ___ field test instruments are required for measurements up to category 6 and class E cabling.
Chapter 12
  1. BICSI recommends that unlisted outside plant cable either be terminated or transitioned to listed cable ___ from it’s point of entrance into a building.
  2. In a direct-buried entrance installation, any trench ____ or more deep must be shored, sloped, or stepped in order to prevent a cave-in
  3. A(n) ___ duct is an aerial duct manufactured with a built-in support strand.
  4. All entrance conduits should be equipped with a plastic or nylon pull cord with a minimum test rating of ___ pulling tension.
  5. On private property, the termination of telecommunications conduits in a joint-use maintenance hole (MH) with electrical cables ____
  6. The color ___ has been adopted by the Common Ground Alliance buried above telecommunications and CATV cables.
  7. Ground-supported outside building terminals require ___ of maintenance clearance on all sides that may be accessed by a technician.
  8. Joint trench requirements for telecommunications facilities placed under railroads require a minimum separation distance of ___ below the top rail.
  9. Ground-supported outside building terminals require ___ of maintenance clearance on all sides that may be accessed by a technician.
  10. Communications poles used for aerial plant are subjected to three types of loading. ___ is/are due to the weight of the attachments and, on guyed poles, the vertical component of the tensions in the guys.
  11. When locating underground utilities where there are several layers of underground services possible, and adequate identification may be questionable, ____ is recommended.
Chapter 13
  1. Line levels used for consumer devices are set at -10 dB referenced to ___
  2. A constant voltage centrally amplified paging system provides a voltage of up to ____ V.
  3. When describing digital audio signal sampling, ___ is defined as the number of bits that describe a signal value.
  4. In a CATV distribution system, a directional coupler is a splitter with ____ outputs.
  5. In a CATV distribution system, a ____ is a device with several inputs and a single output.
  6. In analog video signaling, which one of the following is the most common combination of video signals in both professional AV and home recording devices?
  7. In visual display systems, ___ ratio is the ratio between the projected image and the ambient light condition at the image location.
  8. In areas with less than ___ dB noise level, the distance between ceiling loudspeakers for an overhead paging system should be approximately twice the ceiling height.
  9. In analog video signaling, the chrominance (C) signal is added to the luminance (Y) signal to form a ___ signal.
  10. When describing the properties of sound, the action of molecules ____ is called rarefaction.
  11. ___ loudspeaker systems contain no microphones and are used strictly for the reproduction of recorded or transmitted audio
  12. A line on a 70 V overhead paging system can be run ____ times farther with the same loss than a line on a 25 V system.
  13. In a CATV distribution system, the difference in signal loss between the lowest and highest frequency that the system will deliver over coaxial cable is called signal ___
  14. When describing digital video signal standards, power over HDBaseT allows direct current (DC) power up to ____ watts over balanced twisted-pair cable
  15. In a cable television distribution system, the subscriber drop is connected to the distribution system at the ___
  16. When describing sound waves, the term ___ is used to describe the distance between two corresponding points of two consecutive cycles.
  17. When describing control panel standards for audiovisual (AV) systems, a single IEEE 1394 port can connect up to ___ external devices
Chapter 14
  1. Each different building automation systems (BAS) function should use separate 4-pair balanced twisted-pair cables (t/f)
  2. In building automation systems (BAS) when balanced twisted-pair cabling is used, the horizontal connection point (HCP) should be located at least ____ from the telecommunications room (TR)
  3. In building automation systems (BAS), software at the management level communicates with all system- and field-level processors in a ___ fashion.
  4. For commercial indoor parking areas, the recommended sizing for a building automated system (BAS) coverage area is to plan for one BAS device/coverage area for every ___ of space
  5. For building automation system (BAS), a BAS outlet is typically not needed when using a horizontal connection point (HCP) (t/f)
  6. Building automation systems (BAS) ____ interface with controlled equipment directly through cabled sensors and devices or indirectly through communications links.
Chapter 15
  1. A layer function within the OSI model can be described by a number or by a name. Layer 4 is also called the ___ layer
  2. The term ___ is used to describe a computing device that manages one or more resources shared by users and administrators on a network.
  3. When designing a network, the ___ design process is used in cases where detailed network characteristics are not available.
  4. Which one of the following computer room cabling topologies uses the least amount of cabling?
  5. In an end-of-row computer room cabling topology, ___ levels of switches are used.
  6. Virtualization can be used to extend the useful lifespan of existing devices.
  7. A Class 4 data center requires each equipment distribution are to be served by ____ horizontal distribution area(s).
  8. In the open systems interconnection (OSI) reference model, Layer ____ services are responsible for intranetwork data transfer.
Chapter 16
  1. An active distributed antenna system (DAS) can use ____ modulation to process radio frequency (RF) signals onto an optical carrier for transport.
  2. The term ____ is used to describe the bending of sound, radio, or light waves around an object, barrier or aperture edge.
  3. ____ Power over Ethernet (PoE) provides DC voltage to an access point (AP) over multiple pairs in a 4-pair balanced twisted-pair channel for Gigabit Ethernet.
  4. The IEEE 802.15 specification for wireless personal area networks (WPANs) specifies a maximum throughput of ___ using frequency-hopping spread spectrum signaling.
  5. There is a(n) ___ relationship between frequency and wavelength
  6. The relationship between wavelength, propagation velocity, and frequency is expressed by the formula ____
  7. An antenna that broadcasts with equal power in all directions is called a(n) ___ antenna
  8. ____ antennas provide high gain and allow the designer to control the signal coverage area.
  9. In typical in-building distributed antenna system (DAS) deployments, DAS backends are located in ____ rooms
  10. ___ filters transmit energy outside a specific frequency band.
  11. The frequencies from _____ are most prevalent in the wireless deployments for the unlicensed spectrum
  12. The voice frequency (VF) band in the electromagnetic (EM) spectrum ranges from ____
  13. A traditional distributed antenna system (DAS) uses ____ coaxial cable and signal splitters or couplers.
Chapter 17
  1. In ESS design, the principle of event-based monitoring is based primarily on the fact that electronic systems can efficiently and effectively drive operational response. (t/f)
  2. ___ recording is the non-linear writing of video image data to a media for the purpose of storage.
  3. Notification appliances used for fire alarm signaling are almost exclusively designed to operate on ___ power.
  4. Which one of the following is not a current standard resolution for National Television System Committee?
  5. A digital alarm communicator transmitter (DACT) must be connected to two separate channels of transmission at the protected premises (t/f)
Chapter 18
  1. The annual maintenance window in a data center with a facility availability class ration of F0 exceeds ___ hours.
  2. ____ is the long-term average of time that a system is in service and it satisfactorily performing its intended function.
  3. In order to keep underfloor copper communications cabling adequately separated from underfloor power distribution cables in the data center computer room, it is recommended to route the power distribution cables in the ___ aisle.
  4. When describing data center redundancy, _____ redundancy provides two complete units, modules, paths, or systems for every one required for a base system.
  5. The critical components in a data center with a facility availability class rating of F2 must be of premium quality. (t/f)
  6. The targeted availability in a data center with a facility availability class rating of F2 is ____
  7. The ANSI/TIA-569-C standard for telecommunications pathways and spaces allows for a maximum ____ percent fill of the total available pathway cross-sectional area.
  8. A secondary main distribution area (MDA) is required for ___ data centers
Chapter 19
  1. Commissioning agencies require all health care facilities with infants and children to be equipped with electronic infant protection systems (t/f)
  2. A hospital shall have at least one dedicated entrance facility (EF) with minimum dimensions of ____
  3. Active-based radio frequency identification (RFID) systems typically operate in the ____ range
  4. Most passive-based radio frequency identification (RFID) systems have a typical range of ____
  5. Both active-based and passive-based radio frequency identification (RFID) systems are considered ultra-high frequency (UHF) (t/f)
Chapter 20
  1. With residential cabling, coaxial backbone cabling may be implemented in a ____ topology.
  2. When testing residential data cabling during the trim-out stage of cabling, certification may be used in place of verification testing or cable qualification testing. (t/f)
  3. With residential cabling, optical fiber backbone cabling may be implemented in a ___ topology.
  4. There is/are ___ grades of residential cabling.
  5. For residential telecommunications cabling, the length of each individual telecommunications outlet cable shall not exceed ____
  6. In residential cabling, a dedicated 15-ampere, 120 volt AC nominal, non-switchable duplex electrical outlet shall be provided within ____ of the distribution device (DD).
Chapter 21
  1. A work breakdown structure (WBS) can be diagrammed as a ____ or a(n) ____
  2. In project estimation, a cost performance index (CPI) of less than 1 indicates that the project is ____ budget.
  3. At the lowest level of a work breakdown structure (WBS), ____ and ____ represent the same elements of work or effort.
  4. A maximum of ____ levels are available in MasterFormat, with the ___ level available for user definition.
  5. In project estimation, a cost performance index (CPI) of greater than 1 indicates that the project is ___ budget.
submitted by skinnyfatchka to Bicsi

0 thoughts on “Contract killer zombies 2 v2.0.2 hack ifunbox

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *